Why is government involved in family law?


family law
Stefan M asked:


Why is government involved in family law. My real question is, why is government involved in deciding the legal status of marriage? Why does government have to decide of gay marriage should be legal? A persons relationship does not affect society and should therefore not concern the government. Also, why do marriet people get tax breaks while unmarried persons do not? If all people are equal before the law, how can they discriminate against unmarried persons?

This entry was posted on Monday, September 28th, 2009 at 12:00 am and is filed under Other - Politics & Government. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed. You can leave a response, or trackback from your own site.

3 Responses to “Why is government involved in family law?”

  1. nathan Says:

    Why? The government decides what it chooses to decide. nathan

  2. Fakename Says:

    Marriage wasnt made as gay marriage; government didnt decide that. Dont tell me the tax code can be used to understand American politics. NONE of it makes sense. Fakename

  3. Eva Says:

    Well, the tax breaks, etc. laws were generally implemented when homophobia was much more severe and homosexuality much more quiet in this country. It was just an assumption that gay people didn’t marry.

    Problem is, society’s changed to the point where we understand that gay people exist. We haven’t acknowledged their rights yet, for some unknowable reason.

    Marriage tax breaks exist to encourage people to get married and make families. I agree with this idea to a point; society should encourage families to exist. However, the tax laws ONLY encourage nuclear family living, maybe with some old dependents… I think families should be more encouraged to take care of their elders and have extended families living in, in addition to same-sex marriage rights. Eva

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